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Writer's pictureAndy McIlvain

In the Fullness of Time — Dr. Richard B. Gaffin, Jr.

Updated: Mar 10



In the Fullness of Time — Dr. Richard B. Gaffin, Jr.

"Dr. Gaffin’s new book “In the Fullness of Time: An Introduction to the Biblical Theology of Acts and Paul” will be available May 3rd, 2022." from video introduction.


What does it mean that God sent Jesus in the “fullness of time”?

“But when the time had fully come, God sent his Son, born of a woman, born under law” (Galatians 4:4). This verse declares that God the Father sent His Son when “the time had fully come.” There were many things occurring at the time of the first century that, at least by human reasoning, seem to make it ideal for Christ to come then.


1) There was a great anticipation among the Jews of that time that the Messiah would come. The Roman rule over Israel made the Jews hungry for the Messiah’s coming.


2) Rome had unified much of the world under its government, giving a sense of unity to the various lands. Also, because the empire was relatively peaceful, travel was possible, allowing the early Christians to spread the gospel. Such freedom to travel would have been impossible in other eras.


3) While Rome had conquered militarily, Greece had conquered culturally. A “common” form of the Greek language (different from classical Greek) was the trade language and was spoken throughout the empire, making it possible to communicate the gospel to many different people groups through one common language.


4) The fact that the many false idols had failed to give them victory over the Roman conquerors caused many to abandon the worship of those idols. At the same time, in the more “cultured” cities, the Greek philosophy and science of the time left others spiritually empty in the same way that the atheism of communist governments leaves a spiritual void today.." from the article: What does it mean that God sent Jesus in the “fullness of time”?



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